ACC 492 Final Exam Solutions (All Possible Questions With Answers)
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ACC 492 Final Exam Solutions (All Possible Questions With
Answers)
1) The bonding of employees will normally be expected to:
A. “weed out” dishonest employees already hired.
B. serve as a deterrent to dishonesty.
C. guarantee that all employee fraud will be prevented.
D. eliminate the need for separation of duties in the cash receipts
area.
2) All sales, cash receipts, and sales adjustments are
accurately valued using GAPP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted.
These actions are transaction objectives for:
A. occurance
B. cutoff
C. accurancy
D. completeness
3) Disclosure objectives include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. occurrence and rights and obligations
B. classification and understandability
C. completeness
D. cutoff
4) The extent of the auditor’s inventory test count would LEAST
depend on which of the following?
A. The nature and composition of the inventory.
B. The existence of inventory at multiple locations.
C. The effectiveness of controls pertaining to maintenance of
perpetual records.
D. The care exercised by client employees in taking the inventory.
5) When statistical sampling methods are used by the client in
determining inventories, professional standards require that the auditor
ascertain the following EXCEPT that the:
A. sampling plan has statistical validity.
B. appropriate tests of transactions have been applied.
C. results in terms of reliability are reasonable.
D. sampling plan has been properly applied.
6) The auditor’s strategy in performing test counts during the
inventory observation is to:
A. concentrate tests on high dollar items and take a representative
sample of other items.
B. concentrate tests in areas where employees seem to be
disregarding the inventory instructions.
C. randomly select all test items.
D. test all high dollar items.
7) Observation of inventories is a required audit procedure
whenever:
A. inventories are material.
B. the auditor considers it to be necessary.
C. it is practicable and reasonable.
D. inventories are material and it is practicable and reasonable.
8) With a manufacturer, wholesaler, or retailer, however,
inherent risk for inventory may be assessed at or near the maximum level for
all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. inventories are often stored at multiple sites, adding to the
difficulties associated with maintaining physical controls over theft and
damages, and properly accounting for goods in transit between sites.
B. the volume of purchases, manufacturing, and sales transactions
that affects these accounts is generally high, decreasing the opportunities for
misstatements to occur.
C. inventories are vulnerable to spoilage, obsolescence, and other
factors such as general economic conditions that may affect demand and
salability, and thus the proper valuation of the inventories.
D. the wide diversity of inventory items may present special
problems in determining their quality and market value.
9) During the observation of the inventory, the auditor has NO
responsibility to:
A. observe the taking of the inventory by client personnel.
B. make inquiries of the client concerning the inventories.
C. supervise the taking of the inventory.
D. make some test counts of inventory quantities.
10) The specific audit objective that all purchase transactions
and cash disbursements are valued using GAAP and correctly journalized,
summarized, and posted relates to:
A. rights and obligations.
B. completeness.
C. valuation or allocation.
D. existence or occurrence.
11) The specific audit objective that recorded purchases
represent goods, services, and productive assets received during the period
relates to:
A. rights and obligations.
B. completeness.
C. presentation and disclosure.
D. existence or occurrence.
12) The specific audit objective that all purchases and cash
disbursements made during the period were recorded relates to:
A. rights and obligations.
B. completeness.
C. presentation and disclosure.
D. existence or occurrence.
13) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments,
investment balances are properly identified and classified in the financial
statements, relates to the:
A. existence or occurrence assertion.
B. completeness assertion.
C. presentation or disclosure assertion.
D. rights and obligations assertion.
14) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments,
all recorded investments are owned by the reporting entity, relates to the:
A. existence or occurrence assertion.
B. completeness assertion.
C. valuation or allocation assertion.
D. rights and obligations assertion.
15) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments,
all investments are included in the balance sheet investment accounts, relates
to the:
A. existence or occurrence assertion.
B. completeness assertion.
C. valuation or allocation assertion.
D. rights and obligations assertion.
16) The specific account balance audit objective, plant assets
and related expenses are properly identified and classified in the financial
statements, relates to the:
A. rights and obligations assertion.
B. completeness assertion.
C. presentation or disclosure assertion.
D. existence or occurrence assertion.
17) The audit significance of the financial ratio, fixed asset
turnover, is:
A. this financial ratio provides a reasonableness test of the
entity’s proportion of equity that may be compared with prior years’ experience
or industry data.
B. an unexpected increase or decrease in the depreciation expense
as a percent of depreciable assets may indicate an error in calculating
depreciation.
C. this financial ratio provides a test of the entity’s ability to
generate earnings to cover the cost of service debt.
D. an unexpected increase in this financial ratio may indicate the
failure to record or capitalize depreciable assets.
18) The substantive test of calculating fixed asset turnover is
categorized under:
A. initial procedures.
B. analytical procedures.
C. tests of details of balances.
D. tests of details of transactions.
19) In confirming bank deposits, the auditor need NOT:
A. send two copies of the standard confirmation to the bank.
B. send requests for accounts with zero balances at the end of the
year.
C. personally mail the requests.
D. have the bank return the original to the client.
20) The standard bank confirmation, developed jointly by the
AICPA, the American Bankers Association, and the Bank Administration Institute,
requests information about all of the following EXCEPT:
A. loan interest rates.
B. loan balances.
C. deposit balances.
D. secondary endorsements.
21) The control of all funds during the count of cash on hand is
meant primarily to prevent:
A. any chance of double counting.
B. unauthorized disbursements.
C. transfers by the client.
D. client personnel from viewing the count procedure.
22) Whether the entity maintains effective controls to provide
reasonable assurance that private customer information obtained as a result of
e-commerce is protected from uses not related to the entity’s business defines:
A. information protection.
B. risk assessment.
C. transaction integrity.
D. performance measurement.
23) Best practices in approaching risk management include the
following steps EXCEPT:
A. calculate revenue losses from risks.
B. analyze and assess risks.
C. identify risks.
D. design strategies for managing risk.
24) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. gathers evidence to support the assertions.
B. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions.
C. relies on management statements.
D. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making
the assertions.
25) Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of
the procedures performed in completing the audit?
A. They involve many subjective judgments by the auditor.
B. They are performed after the balance sheet date.
C. They are optional since they have only an indirect impact on the
opinion to be expressed.
D. They are usually performed by audit managers or other senior
members of the audit team who have extensive audit experience with the client.
26) The auditor relies on the client representation letter to:
A. document the continuing materiality of client representations.
B. guarantee the absence of management fraud.
C. confirm written representations given to the auditor.
D. reduce the possibility of misunderstanding concerning
management’s representations.
27) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. gathers evidence to support the assertions.
B. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions.
C. relies on management statements.
D. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making
the assertions.
28) Which of the following is NOT among the specific auditing
procedures the auditor performs to obtain additional audit evidence?
A. reading minutes of meetings
B. reviewing evidence concerning litigation, claims, and
assessments
C. making subsequent events review
D. obtaining client representation letter
29) In regard to identifying and evaluating subsequent events,
AU 560.12 specifies that the auditor inquires of management having
responsibility for financial and accounting matters as to all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. any significant changes in capital stock, long-term debt, or
working capital to the date of inquiry.
B. the minutes of meetings of directors, stockholders, and other
appropriate committees.
C. any substantial contingent liabilities or commitments existing
at the balance sheet date or date of inquiry.
D. the current status of items previously accounted for on the
basis of tentative, preliminary, or inconclusive data.
30) When an investigation of the discovery of facts existing at
the report date confirms the existence of the fact and the auditor believes the
information is important to those relying or likely to rely on the financial
statements, the auditor should immediately:
A. notify the SEC or other regulatory agency.
B. notify the audit committee.
C. take steps to prevent future reliance on the audit report.
D. resign from the engagement.
31) The two main sections of the AICPA’s Code of Professional
Conduct are:
A. Rules of Conduct and Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct.
B. Principles and Ethics Rulings.
C. Principles and Rules of Conduct.
D. Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct and Ethics Rulings.
32) In general, except when explicitly stated otherwise, the
Rules of Conduct in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are applicable to:
A. all professional services.
B. all members and all professional services.
C. all members.
D. all members in public practice.
33) Which one of the following is NOT true of the Principles in
the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct?
A. They are set forth as enforceable standards.
B. They are expressions of ideals of professional conduct.
C. They provide a framework for the Rules.
D. They express the basic tenets of ethical conduct.
34) Gross negligence can best be defined as:
A. misrepresentation.
B. criminal fraud.
C. failure to exercise due care.
D. failure to exercise even slight care.
35) Anyone identified to the auditor by name prior to the audit
who is to be the principal recipient of the auditor’s report is a
A. foreseen beneficiary.
B. foreseeable party.
C. third party.
D. primary beneficiary.
36) The Fund of Funds case illustrated that auditors could be
found liable for failure to report wrong-doings discovered:
A. on any type of engagement for a particular client.
B. even on engagements for other clients.
C. only on audit engagements for a particular client.
D. only on special fraud audits conducted under separate contract.
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